Without election there is only the potential for salvation,
not the certainty of salvation. So would Christ die for
those who might possibly be saved, or would He die
for those whom He knew for certain would be saved?
If He died for all to be saved, and all are not saved,
then His dying on the cross for their sin was a failure.
If He suffered for their sin, and they are not saved,
then His suffering for them was in vain. And if
God is omniscient, then why would He impose the penalty
of sin upon Christ for those whom He knew would not come to faith?
God is omniscient, then why would He impose the penalty
of sin upon Christ for those whom He knew would not come to faith?
II Thessalonians 2:13, I Peter 1:1-2, Isaiah 53:10-11
No comments:
Post a Comment